Does vorticity "induces" velocity?

Eddies, vortices, whirlpools, tornadoes, and hurricanes; all of these fluidic structures have the same thing in common: they all rotate around a point by a vectorial quantity (which may vary with time). This is where the term "vorticity" comes in. Mathematically, vorticity is defined as the curl of the velocity: 𝜔(r, t)=∇×𝑢(r, t). Since the velocity field depends on its position (r) and time (t), vorticity also does. Then, vorticity within a vortex can be explained as a measure of the rotation of a flow element as it moves along a closed (circular) streamline about an axis, maintaining a circumferential translation. In an ideal (incompressible, irrotational and inviscid) vortex, all flow elements remain without local rotation, where they are still irrotational (𝜔=0 everywhere, except along the axis).

Fig. 1 Spiral vorticity. Unlike solid-body rotation, the tangential velocity decreases with increasing distance from the vortex center. Source: https://64.media.tumblr.com/3d03d0003b6ad142b69af8d310811934/tumblr_pv4tui7H5x1y9iby6o2_540.gif

There is another term associated with vorticity that is more abstract due to its mathematical (rather than physical) nature: "circulation" (Γ). This term always appears in connection with the generation of lift theory, for example in the Kutta-Zhukovskiy theorem, where the lift (L) is simply obtained by the flow density (ρ) times the magnitude of the free-stream velocity (U) times the circulation: L=ρUΓ. This simple definition allows to obtain a fundamental measure in aerodynamics (e.g., lift on a two-dimensional flat plate). Now, I will not go deeper into the analysis of what circulation represents, since the goal of this text is to go in another sense. However, keep in mind that circulation, like vorticity, can also be represented by a vectorial quantity (α)*. In the three-dimensional case, vorticity can be defined as circulation density, since both terms are related by a fluid volume (α= 𝜔V; α is sometimes denoted as Γ).

Fig. 2 Black points: Solid-body rotation; dark blue: large-viscosity fluid; light blue: small-viscosity fluid ➝ inviscid flow.

Returning to the two-dimensional case to simplify the explanation, according to the theory, a point (ideal) vortex can induce (or cause) a tangential velocity (v_t) at a certain distance (r) and it depends on the magnitude of its circulation: v_t=Γ/2πr. From such an equation, it is clear that the tangential velocity decreases as the evaluation point moves away from the vortex center (see Fig. 3b). Note that this phenomenon is exactly the opposite of what occurs in a solid-body (or infinitely viscous fluid) rotation, where the tangential velocity increases with distance: v_t=Ωr, where Ω is the angular velocity (ω/2; see Fig. 3a). In a solid-body rotation, the circumferential translation of a particle remains about the axis, but includes a local rotation (it is a rotational behavior)**.

Fig. 3 Tangential velocity vs radius for a) solid-body rotation and b) an ideal bidimensional vortex. 

Now it is time to get to the point of this publication: Does a vortex induce velocity at a distance? It is true that "induction" is a term often used in electromagnetics, where the concepts of Potential Flow Theory (including the Biot-Savart law; see below), the basis of current theoretical aerodynamics, apply. From a broader perspective, however, the word "induction" should not be treated as exclusive of certain fields of knowledge, since it means "caused by" or "provoked by". Since it is clear that this post is not about the origin of the words or their etymology, I will now try to justify why the term "induced velocity" should be correct, or at least accepted in the most broadest sense (disconected from electromagnetics), in the context of the Circulation Theory of Lift and vortex methods, i.e. in aerodynamics.

In the three-dimensional case, and by analogy from electromagnetics to aerodynamics, the Biot-Savart law states that a vortex filament (i.e., a wire) with constant circulation (i.e., electric current) causes a vectorial velocity (i.e., magnetic field) at a fixed point at a distance (now such a distance is defined by a series of position vectors: r_0, r_1, and r_2):

Fig. 4 Induced velocity at a point (P) caused by a vortex filament (A-B) with circulation Γ. 

As we know, such a law is the basis of the Lifting Line Theory (LLT) and the Vortex Lattice Method (VLM), which have proven to be reliable over several decades for calculating the aerodynamic characteristics of simplified geometries (i.e., airfoils, wings, and aircraft) under specific operating conditions (e.g., attached flow assumption), especially during the preliminary design phase. For such a fact, the application and usefulness of this law cannot be denied, if not in fluid dynamics in general, at least in computational aerodynamics. But what is the physical justification that allows a vortex to induce a velocity at a distance? or, in other words, why does a leaf of a tree move when a tornado is approaching? 

At this point, we must remember that vorticity (hence the Biot-Savart law) is defined within the framework of the PFT. So, such a theory is established for an assumed irrotational, incompressible and inviscid (without friction between circumferential layers around an axis) continuum medium, where flow properties are instantaneously transported far away due to the infinite Reynolds number condition. Note that the velocity induced by an ideal vortex is never zero! (v_t=Γ/2πr is an asymptotic function; see Fig. 3b), so ideally a perfect vortex has no physical boundary. But why relate electromagnetics and aerodynamics if the induction phenomenon is so different? In the first case, it takes place even in vacuum (e.g., in space), while it is quite obvious that a fluid flow cannot exist in such a state due to the absence of matter (and its transport). Perhaps electromagnetics and aerodynamics are not related at all? In addition, we must remember that sources and sinks, which naturally exist in electromagnetics, have no physical meaning in fluid dynamics and aerodynamics (i.e., the flow does not appear or disappear abruptly), although they are often used to model an "ideal" flow past an object (see Fig. 5). This last fact seems to strengthen those who argue against the use of "induced velocity" in aerodynamics. Perhaps it is time to separate aerodynamics from electromagnetics, maintaining only one common law between the two fields.

Fig. 5 Rankine oval by a source and a sink in the scope of the Potential Flow Theory. Source: http://www-mdp.eng.cam.ac.uk

So, returning to Fig. 2, it is quite obvious that the frictional contact between the particles of the solid body (or a veeery viscous fluid!) is the mechanism that allows to induce a linearly increasing tangential velocity from the center to the edge of the solid body/fluid. So what happens in the hypothetical case of an inviscid vortex? Although there is no shear (nor local rotation) between the circumferential layers, the inviscid condition does not prevent (biased) collisions between the flow particles (see Fig. 7), which do not necessarily occur exactly along a streamline (where all particles hypothetically have the same tangential velocity), since each flow particle has a volume (see intermolecular collision theory and Fig. 6). Finally, such a massive collision phenomenon will dramatically reduce the tangential velocity in the inner layers (theoretically infinite along the axis), while in the outer layers such a phenomenon is asymptotically smooth (see Fig. 3b).

 
Fig. 6 Intermolecular collision scheme, where fluid molecules are represented by spheres.
Source: Molecular Collisions (youtube.com)

Fig. 7 Simplified scheme for particle collisions with different tangential velocities (arrows) and crossing trajectories due to their curved paths.

This article, like the previous ones, does not pretend to show absolute truths about the understanding of a complex physical phenomenon, especially by oversimplified explanations, where some fine-grained aspects are left aside (I do not yet have enough knowledge to go deeper***). However, it may help to make an effort to think about the problem from a different perspective; in this case, from a very high viscosity fluid to an inviscid one, where it is assumed that some physical interaction exists within the medium to transport a variable (velocity). In previous cases, such a way of thinking (inverse logic) seems to be successfully applied [1].

Is there another way to 'transport' tangential velocity from the vortex center without the existence of physical particle interaction (collisions)? Perhaps electromagnetically at molecular level? 

*in 3D, both vorticity and circulation vectors must be aligned to maintain a divergence-free vorticity field.
**similar to the moon's orbit around the earth, where the same side is always seen from this latter.
***However, I do know mesoscale principles (based on streaming and collision processes) behind the Lattice-Boltzmann Method (LBM), an intermediate level between micro and macro scales.

Comments

  1. Your explanation is not very clear:
    "vorticity can be explained as a measure of the rotation of a flow element" - ok, perfectly fine
    "as it moves along a closed (circular) streamline about an axis" - we don't need to have closed streamlines to have vorticity, shear flow is a common example
    "maintaining a circumferential translation without local rotation (the element is still irrotational)" this is confusing and quite opposite to the usual meaning of vorticity, which refers precisely to the rotation of the fluid particle and not of the overall fluid. Take a line vortex, it is irrotational, but we have fluid rotating around its axis with circular streamlines.
    So is vorticity the rotation of the fluid element, or not?

    -Circulation is most definitely not a vectorial quantity. It is defined as the line integral of the component of the velocity field tangential to the curve, and therefore it is a scalar quantity (in any dimension). What you call "vorticity density" is sometimes used and denoted with Gamma, but it's not the circulation.

    -Since aether was dispensed with, I don't think there is any doubt that electromagnetism and fluid dynamics are not related. Their descriptions, however, can share some mathematical tools, as you noted, which may help in their analysis by referring to one another in analogies. Hence the use of "induced velocity", which is a term used to remember that the velocity field can be computed if the vorticity field is known. The converse is also true, and we should actually be saying that the velocity and the vorticity field are "consistent" with each other, rather than one inducing the other.
    The leaf moves when the tornado is approaching because we call "tornado" a particular velocity field, which happens to be different from zero where the leaf is. Also notice that in saying "approaching", one might think of unsteady conditions.

    - Your depiction of flow particles is misleading, since it doesn't refer to a continuum: there are gaps between the particles. You can talk of "collision" in kinetic theories, which are separate from continuum mechanics, and where molecules and their (elastic) collisions are used to describe transport phenomena such as viscosity.

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    Replies
    1. Hi CT,

      Thanks for your comments.

      I just added the word "global" before "rotation of a flow element" to make it clearer.
      I am referring to the circular streamlines of a vortex. I guess you are talking about the vortex line pathline (axis of rotation), which according to the 2nd Helmholtz theorem must be closed, even in contact with a solid surface (exists continuity with the boundary; bounded-wake vortex continuity, e.g., LLT).
      As you know, in an ideal vortex the vorticity is zero everywhere except on its axis. I would prefer to say "...fluid translating (without local rotation) about its axis...", but the original definition is confusing in itself. An alternative might be: "...fluid globally rotating (in pure translation) about an axis...". I think adding the word "global" to the original text makes this clearer.

      I just made some simplifications in the text to make it more precise and clear. What do you think?

      I see your point. But, at least in my programming experience, the velocity field comes directly from the vorticity field, I mean, in one direction. As you pointed out in a previous time, "vorticity is velocity", however, from my perspective, even if both fields were "consistent", it does not mean that there is at least one (mathematical; B-S law) causal way, that is what I say "vorticity induces/causes/provokes velocity". Maybe the answer lies in the nabla operator in omega = nabla x v; I mean, if it is considered as a function (vorticity depends on velocity, therefore velocity causes vorticity) or simply as a transformation operator (vorticity is velocity but transformed, and VICEVERSA! without any causal effect); In this point, the first case is opposite and the second one is trivial (consistent?)...

      Continuum mechanics must always be subject to the microscale scenario. Yes, there are gaps, but they are compensated by the molecular speeds (thousands of km/h in gases or smaller distances in liquids), that is why several collisions occur at the same instant, and therefore we can talk about a continuum medium; please note that my scheme is an extreme simplification, besides in an ideal vortex.

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    2. The wording might be a little less confusing, but it's still not clear if you mean that in order to have vorticity you need to have "circular" streamlines (I was referring to streamlines, not vorticity lines) and a rotating pattern around some axis. Shear flow has neither, but its vorticity is different from zero, as can be easily computed. Vorticity is the local rotation of fluid particles, not an overall flow behaviour. Think of a car going around a roundabout vs a car spinning while sliding down a road: vorticity is the latter, not the former. You said it yourself, the line vortex is irrotational, omega = 0, then why use it as an example of vorticity?

      I too have computed velocity from a vorticity distribution, but I'm quite sure that when you've first learned about vorticity, you started by computing the curl of some given velocity field. It can be argued that there can be velocity without vorticity, but not the opposite, due to the nature of the curl operator.
      Anyway, I find myself to agree better with your second "interpretation": luckily, velocity and vorticity can be compute from each other with relative ease. I think that's the most important aspect, and chosing one over the other is unnecessary.

      Continuum mechanics is completely separate from kinetic theories or any kind of microscopic description of matter. Yes, we can link concepts from the respective fields (eg temperature and kinetic energy of molecules), but it is irrelevant for the theories themselves. Continuum mechanics is based on some axioms (which don't consider gaps between particles), and it works amazingly well to describe the everyday world.

      I seem to understand that you're very keen on avoiding viscosity, but every "molecular" explanation you introduce appears to me just as a description of exactly what viscosity does (aside from the fact that, as I've said above, molecular mechanisms are not a factor in continuum theories). What is so wrong with viscosity?

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    3. Yes, you are right. My mistake was mixing the definitions for vorticity and an ideal vortex in the same sentence. I just corrected it. Thanks!

      From my perspective, direct collisions are not related to fluid viscosity, but to particle agglomeration, remembering that viscosity is defined as the resistance of a fluid to flow by filling gaps, which is a temporal phenomenon, whereas collisions occur instantaneously and independently.

      Regards!

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    4. I'm happy to help you share your knowledge! Now the ideal vortex definition is OK, but I still think there shouldn't be a restriction on the "closed (circular) streamline about an axis" for vorticity.

      Firstly, all that matters for the definition of viscosity in continuum theory is basically momentum transport, whichever microscopic mechanism you want to explain it by. Secondly, I'm wondering how "filling gaps" would be a temporal phenomenon, whereas collisions are not: aren't collisions determined by the particles' motion in time? (Setting aside the fact that these "molecular" descriptions are quite metaphisical)

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